Wednesday, July 20, 2011

Why are there so many "gropings"in Japan?

Question:


Im a guy and i understand the urge for sexual needs but come on!!! The need to introduce women only carriages, Japanese men taking pictures of women's skirts, groping them and stealign underwear on trains. Yes most countries have it!! But to this extreme I dont think so?? What do u guys think?? Why dont the women come forward and say they are being harassed? Is it relli so serious there are pervert signs??

Answer:


Didn't you (or someone else) post a similar question about a week ago?
Anyway, if you were serious (I guess not), you need to look at this issue from another angle.

I can understand your question, but let me add something else. We know that "gropings" are taking place in those outrageously crowded trains during the rush hours every morning in the big cities. Up until a few years ago, if a woman claimed that she was groped "by this man," standing behind her, the man would be dragged out of the train by other passengers and immediately reported to the police. The man, based solely on her account, would be prosecuted and sent to the court. In almost all cases in this nature (again, until a few years ago), the man in question was "found" guilty no matter how firmly he denies the allegation "as long as he cannot prove his innocence." Something must be wrong with this, ha?

The basic philosophy of the criminal law in most of the democratic countries around the glove, including Japan, is "presumption of innocence," which means you are not guilty unless the prosecutor proves your crime. But, how can they prove it? In a train so crowded that nobody can hardly move, how she can tell "this man touched me from behind?" The real groper may have been one of the guys who dragged him out of the train.

Over the past couple of years, there were some widely-reported groping cases where "suspicious but not guilty" men were released, which can be logically and reasonably understood. But, when they were finally released from six-month imprisonment or so, they had lost everything; jobs, families, homes, social status and money. The woman who was groped by one of the men who happened to be standing behind her was a victim; but the innocent man who lost everything solely because of her proofless claim was also a victim. It is obvious that those male victims have to lose much more than the woman. This is what I mean by "you need to look at this issue from another angle." Do I make any sense?

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